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If (b + c – a)x = (c + a – b)y = (a + b – c)z = 2, then \(\bigg(\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z}\bigg)\)\(\bigg(\frac{1}{z}+\frac{1}{x}\bigg)\)\(\bigg(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}\bigg)\) is equals:

(a) a2b2c2 

(b) abc 

(c) a2b2 

(d) (abc)2

1 Answer

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Best answer

(b) abc

Given, (b + c – a) x = (c + a – b) y = (a + b – c) z = 2

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