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0 votes
6.1k views
in Logarithm by (23.6k points)
reopened by

If n = 1000 !, then the value of \(\frac{1}{log_2\,n}\) + \(\frac{1}{log_3\,n}\) + .... + \(\frac{1}{log_{1000}\,n}\) is

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 10 

(d) 103

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1 Answer

+1 vote
by (24.0k points)

Given, 1000! = n. Now, \(\frac{1}{log_2\,n}\) + \(\frac{1}{log_3\,n}\) + .... + \(\frac{1}{log_{1000}\,n}\) 

= logn 2 + logn 3 + .... + logn 1000 \(\bigg[\text{Using}\frac{1}{log_b\,a}= log_a\,b\bigg]\)

= logn (2 × 3 × 4 × ... × 1000) = logn (1000!) = logn n = 1.

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