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in Magnetism and Matter by (26.7k points)
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Answer the following questions:

1. Why does a paramagnetic sample display greater magnetization (for the same magnetizing field) when cooled?

2. Why is diamagnetism, in contrast, almost independent of temperature?

3. If a toroid used bismuth for its core, will the field in the core be (slightly) greater or (slightly) less than when the core is empty?

4.  If the permeability of a ferromagnetic material independent of the magnetic field? If not is it more for lower or higher fields?

5. Magnetic field lines are always nearly normal to the surface of a ferromagnet at every point.

6. Would the maximum possible magnetisation of a paramagnetic sample be of the same order of magnitude as the magnetisation of a ferromagnet?

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1. The tendency to disrupt the alignment of dipoles (with the magnetising field) arising from random thermal motion is reduced at lower temperatures.

2. The induced dipole moment in a diamagnetic sample is always opposite to the magnetising field, no matter what the internal motion of the atom is. 3. Slightly less, since bismuth is diamagnetic.

4. No, as is evident from the magnetisation curve. From the slope of the magnetisation curve, it is clear that μ is greater for lower fields.

5. Proof of the important fact (of much practical use) is based on boundary conditions of magnetic fields (B & H) at the interface of two media. (When one of the media has μ>>1, the field lines meet this medium nearly normally).

6. Yes. Apart from minor differences in the strength of the individual atomic dipoles of two different materials, a paramagnetic sample with saturated magnetisation will have the same order of magnetisation. But of course, saturation requires impractically high magnetising fields.

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