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0 votes
10.9k views
in Mathematics by (35.0k points)

Let in a Binomial distribution, consisting of 5 independent trials, probabilities of exactly 1 and 2 successes be 0.4096 and 0.2048 respectively. Then the probability of getting exactly 3 successes is equal to :

(1) \(\frac{32}{625}\)

(2) \(\frac{80}{243}\)

(3) \(\frac{40}{243}\)

(4) \(\frac{128}{625}\)

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1 Answer

+1 vote
by (34.5k points)

Correct option is (1) \(\frac{32}{625}\)

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