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0 votes
1.5k views
in Sets, Relations and Functions by (27.7k points)
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Mark (√) against the correct answer in the following: 

Let A and B be two non - empty sets and let 

f : (A × B) → (B × A) : f(a, b) = (b, a). Then, f is 

A. one - one and into 

B. one - one and onto 

C. many - one and into 

D. many - one and onto

1 Answer

+1 vote
by (25.7k points)
selected by
 
Best answer

SINCE, f(a, b) = (b, a).There is no same value of y at different values of x

∴function is one one

∴Range(A×B)≠Codomain(B × A)

⇒function is into

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