Let f(x) = |(cos x, x, 1)(2 sin x, x, 2x)(sin x, x, x)|, then lim x ∈ 0 f(x)/x^2 is equal to

Question

Let f(x) = \(\begin{vmatrix} cos\,x & x & 1 \\ 2\,sin\,x & x & 2x \\ sin\,x & x & x \end{vmatrix},\) then \(\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\frac{f(x)}{x^2}\) is equal to

A. 0

B. -1

C. 2

D. 3

Answer 1

Correct answer is A.

ANSWER = -1 + 1 = 0