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If y = tan-1\(\Big(\cfrac{sin\,\text x+cos\,\text x}{cos\,\text x-sin\,\text x}\Big),\) then \(\cfrac{dy}{d\mathrm x} \) is equal to

A. \(\cfrac{1}{2}\)

B. 0

C. 1

D. none of these

1 Answer

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Best answer

Correct option is C. 1

y = tan-1\(\Big(\cfrac{sin\,\text x+cos\,\text x}{cos\,\text x-sin\,\text x}\Big)\)

Dividing Numerator and denominator by cos x we get,

Differentiating w.r.t x we get

\(\cfrac{dy}{d\mathrm x} \) = 1

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