To Prove:
\((1+\frac{1}1)\)x \((1+\frac{1}2)\) x \((1+\frac{1}3)\) x......x \(\left\{1+\frac{1}{n^1}\right\}\) = (n + 1)1
Let us prove this question by principle of mathematical induction (PMI)
Let P(n): \((1+\frac{1}1)\)x \((1+\frac{1}2)\) x \((1+\frac{1}3)\) x......x \(\left\{1+\frac{1}{n^1}\right\}\) = (n + 1)1
For n = 1
LHS = 1 + \(\frac{1}1\) = 2
RHS = (1 + 1)2 = 2
Hence, LHS = RHS
P(n) is true for n = 1
Assume P(k) is true
\((1+\frac{1}1)\)x \((1+\frac{1}2)\) x \((1+\frac{1}3)\) x......x \(\left\{1+\frac{1}{k^1}\right\}\) = (k + 1)1.....(1)
We will prove that P(k + 1) is true
[Now writing the second last term]
\((1+\frac{1}1)\)x \((1+\frac{1}2)\) x \((1+\frac{1}3)\) x......x \(\left\{1+\frac{1}{k^1}\right\}\) x {1 + \(\frac{1}{(k+1)^1}\)}
LHS = RHS
Therefore, P (k + 1) is true whenever P(k) is true.
By the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is true for
Where n is a natural number
Hence proved.