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If y = cos x ⋅ cos 4x ⋅ cos 8x, then what is \(\rm \frac{1}{y}\frac{dy}{dx}\) at \(\rm x = \frac{\pi}{4}\) equal to?
1. -1
2. 0
3. 1
4. 3

1 Answer

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Best answer
Correct Answer - Option 1 : -1

Concept:

  • log m + log n = log mn
  • sin x/cos x = tan x
  • \(\rm \frac{d}{dx} log\ x = \frac{1}{x}\)
  • \(\rm \frac{d}{dx} cos x = -sin x\)

 

Calculation:

y = cos x ⋅ cos 4x ⋅ cos 8x  

Taking log on both side

⇒ log y = log (cos x ⋅ cos 4x ⋅ cos 8x

⇒ log y = log cos x + log cos 4x + log cos 8x 

Differentiating both side with respect to x

⇒ \(\frac{1}{y}\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{-sin\ x}{cos\ x}+\frac{-4sin\ 4x}{cos\ 4 x}+\frac{-8sin\ 8x}{cos\ 8x}\)

⇒ \(\frac{1}{y}\frac{dy}{dx}\) = -1[tan x + tan 4x + tan 8x]

Now putting \(\rm x = \frac{π}{4}\)

⇒ \(\frac{1}{y}\frac{dy}{dx}\) = -1[\(tan\ \frac{π}{4}+tan \frac{4π}{4}+tan\ \frac{8π}{4}\)]

⇒  \(\frac{1}{y}\frac{dy}{dx}\) = -[1 + tan π + tan 2π]     [∵ tan(π/4) = 1]

⇒  \(\frac{1}{y}\frac{dy}{dx}\) = -1    (∵ tan nπ = 0)

 ∴​ \(\rm \frac{1}{y}\frac{dy}{dx}\) at \(x = \frac{π}{4}\) equal to is -1.

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