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Find the value of \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0} \left[ {\frac{{1 - \cos mx}}{{{x^2}}}} \right]\) ?

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Correct Answer - Option 4 : \(\frac{m^2}{2}\)

CONCEPT:

L-Hospital Rule: Let f(x) and g(x) be two functions

Suppose that we have one of the following cases,

I.  \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{{\rm{x}} \to {\rm{a}}} \frac{{{\rm{f}}\left( {\rm{x}} \right)}}{{{\rm{g}}\left( {\rm{x}} \right)}} = \frac{0}{0}\)

II. \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{{\rm{x}} \to {\rm{a}}} \frac{{{\rm{f}}\left( {\rm{x}} \right)}}{{{\rm{g}}\left( {\rm{x}} \right)}} = \frac{\infty }{\infty }\)

Then we can apply L-Hospital Rule ⇔ \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{{\bf{x}} \to {\bf{a}}} \frac{{{\bf{f}}\left( {\bf{x}} \right)}}{{{\bf{g}}\left( {\bf{x}} \right)}} = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{{\bf{x}} \to {\bf{a}}} \frac{{{\bf{f}}'\left( {\bf{x}} \right)}}{{{\bf{g}}'\left( {\bf{x}} \right)}}\)

CALCULATION:

Here, we have to find the value of \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0} \left[ {\frac{{1 - \cos mx}}{{{x^2}}}} \right]\)

As we can see that, \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0} \left[ {\frac{{1 - \cos mx}}{{{x^2}}}} \right] = \frac{0}{0}\)

We also know that, according to L-Hospital's Rule if f(x) and g(x) are two functions such that \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{{\rm{x}} \to {\rm{a}}} \frac{{{\rm{f}}\left( {\rm{x}} \right)}}{{{\rm{g}}\left( {\rm{x}} \right)}} = \frac{0}{0}\) then \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{{\bf{x}} \to {\bf{a}}} \frac{{{\bf{f}}\left( {\bf{x}} \right)}}{{{\bf{g}}\left( {\bf{x}} \right)}} = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{{\bf{x}} \to {\bf{a}}} \frac{{{\bf{f}}'\left( {\bf{x}} \right)}}{{{\bf{g}}'\left( {\bf{x}} \right)}}\)

⇒ \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0} \left[ {\frac{{1 - \cos mx}}{{{x^2}}}} \right] = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0} \left[ {\frac{{m\sin mx}}{{2x}}} \right] = \frac{0}{0}\)

Again by using L-Hospital's Rule we get,

⇒ \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0} \left[ {\frac{{m\sin mx}}{{2x}}} \right] = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0} \left[ {\frac{{{m^2}\cos mx}}{2}} \right] = \frac{{{m^2}}}{2}\)

⇒ \(\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0} \left[ {\frac{{1 - \cos mx}}{{{x^2}}}} \right] = \frac{m^2}{2} \)

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

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