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in Binomial Theorem by (51.4k points)

If \(\sum\limits_{r= 0}^{2n} a_r(x-2)^r = \sum\limits_{r=0}^{2n}b_r (x-3)^r \) and ak = 1 for all k ≥ n, then bn =

(a) nCn

(b) 2n+1Cn+1

(c) 2n+1Cn

(d) None of these

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1 Answer

+1 vote
by (51.1k points)

Correct option is (b) 2n+1Cn+1

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