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If a polynomial p(x)=Ax^3+Bx^2+Cx+D vanishes at x=a-d,a,a+d, then prove that a^2+(D/aA)>0.

+3 votes
263 views
asked Aug 17, 2016 in Mathematics by Rahul Roy (7,955 points)

1 Answer

+3 votes
answered Aug 17, 2016 by vikash (21,287 points)
selected Aug 18, 2016 by Rahul Roy
 
Best answer

We have polynomial p(x)=Ax^3+Bx^2+Cx+D

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