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in Mathematics by (64.1k points)

Let f : [0, π/2→[0,1] be a differentiable function such that f(0) = 0,f(π/2) = 1, then

1 Answer

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by (69.4k points)
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Best answer

Correct option (C)(D)

Explanation:

Consider g(x) = sin-1 f(x) - x

since g(0) = 0, g(π/2) = 0

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