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in Sets, relations and functions by (53.4k points)

The proposition (~ p) ∨ (p∧~q) is equivalent to

(A)  p ∧ ~q

(B)  p ∨ ~q

(C)  p → ~q

(D)  q → p

1 Answer

+1 vote
by (53.3k points)
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Best answer

This can be explained with the help of the following truth tables (‘∧’ symbol stands for AND and ‘∨’ symbol stands for OR):

Thus from the truth table, we conclude that (~ p) ∨ (p∧~q)  is equivalent to p → (~q).

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