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0 votes
58.5k views
in Mathematics by (54.9k points)

If f'(x) = tan-1(secx + tanx), - π/2 < x < π/2, and f(0) = 0, then f(1) is equal to:

(1) (π - 1)/4

(2) (π + 2)/4

(3) (π + 1)/4

(4) 1/4

2 Answers

+2 votes
by (52.6k points)
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Best answer

Answer is (3) (π + 1)/4

+1 vote
by (58.4k points)

Answer is (3) (π + 1)/4

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