Let us consider a sequence in G.P
2, 2, 2 …(i)
If two terms are in AP then,
a2 – a1 = a3 – a2
So, let the sequence (i) is in AP, then
a2 – a1 = 2 – 2 = 0
and a3 – a2 = 2 – 2 = 0
∴ ar – a = ar2 – ar
This means two sequences can be in both A.P and G.P together.
Hence, the given statement is FALSE