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in Binomial Theorem by (23.8k points)
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If (1 + x)n = C0 + C1x + C2x2 + ..... + Cnxn, then C0C1 + C1 C2 + .... + Cn–1Cn is equal to

(a) \(\frac{(2n)!}{(n-1)!(n+1)!}\) 

(b) \(\frac{(2n-1)!}{(n-1)!(n+1)!}\)

(c)  \(\frac{(2n)!}{(n+2)!(n+1)!}\)

(d) None of these

1 Answer

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Best answer

Answer : (a) \(\frac{(2n)!}{(n-1)!(n+1)!}\) 

Given, (1 + x)n = C0 + C1x + C2 x2 + ..... + Cn xn ...(i) 

Also,(x + 1)n = C0 xn + C1xn–1 + C2 xn–2 + ..... + Cn–1 x + Cn ...(ii)

Multiplying (i) by (ii) we get

(1 + x)2n = (C0 + C1x + C2 x2 + ..... + Cn–1 xn–1 + Cn xn) × (C0 xn + C1xn–1 + C2 xn–2 + ..... + Cn–1 x + Cn)

Now equating the coefficient of xn–1 on both the sides, we get

C0C1 + C1C2 + ..... + Cn–1Cn = 2nCn–1

\(\frac{(2n)!}{(n-1)!(n+1)!}\)

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