(b) \(x=\frac{1}{2}, y = 4\)
Given \(\bigg(x-\frac{1}{y}\bigg)\)+ \(\bigg(x^2-\frac{1}{y^2}\bigg)\) + ..... to ∞ = \(\frac{2}{3}\)
⇒ (x + x2 + x3 + .... to ∞) – \(\bigg(\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{y^2}+....to\,\infty\bigg)\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)
⇒ \(\frac{x}{1-x}-\frac{\frac{1}{y}}{1-\frac{1}{y}}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\) ⇒ \(\frac{x}{1-x}-\frac{1}{y-1}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)
⇒ \(\frac{\frac{2}{y}}{1-\frac{2}{y}}-\frac{1}{y-1}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\) (∵ xy = 2 ⇒ x = \(\frac{2}{y}\))
⇒ \(\frac{2}{y-2}\) - \(\frac{1}{y-1}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\) ⇒ \(\frac{2y-2-y+2}{y^2-3y+2}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)
⇒ 3y = 2(y2 – 3y + 2)
⇒ 2y2 – 9y + 4 = 0 ⇒ 2y2 – 8y – y + 4 = 0
⇒ (2y – 1) (y – 4) = 0.
⇒ y = \(\frac{1}{2}\) or y = 4
When y = \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(x\) = 4 and y = 4 , \(x\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
∵ \(x\) < 1 ∴ y = 4, x = \(\frac{1}{2}\) is true.