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Why is Axiom 5, in the list of Euclid’s axioms, considered a ‘universal truth’? (Note that the question is not about the fifth postulate.)

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Why is Axiom 5, in the list of Euclid’s axioms, considered a ‘universal truth’? (Note that the question is not about the fifth postulate.)

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Axiom 5 : ‘Whole is always greater than its part.’ 

This is a ‘universal truth’ because part is included in the whole and therefore can never be greater than the whole in magnitude.

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