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0 votes
13.5k views
in Mathematics by (38.6k points)
reopened by

Let f(x) = \(cos\left(2tan^{-1}sin\left(cot^{-1}\sqrt{\cfrac{1-x}{x}}\right)\right)\)

f(x) = cos (2tan-1 sin (cot-1√(1-x/x)),

0 < x < 1. Then :

(1) (1 – x)2 f'(x) – 2(f(x))2 = 0 

(2) (1 + x)2 f'(x) + 2(f(x))2 = 0 

(3) (1 – x)2 f'(x) + 2(f(x))2 = 0 

(4) (1 + x)2 f'(x) – 2(f(x))2 = 0

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1 Answer

+2 votes
by (33.6k points)

Correct answer is: (3) (1 – x)2 f'(x) + 2(f(x))2 = 0

 f(x) = \(cos\left(2tan^{-1}sin\left(cot^{-1}\sqrt{\cfrac{1-x}{x}}\right)\right)\)

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