Correct Answer - Option 3 : 5
The probability of hitting a target at least once is given below:
\(P = 1\) - (probability of not hitting the target in any trial)
By using binomial distribution,
⇒ P = 1 - nC0 p0 qn
Where
‘n’ is the number of independent trials.
‘p’ and ‘q’ are the probability of success and failure respectively.
From question,
\(\Rightarrow p = \frac{1}{3}\)
∵ [p + q = 1 ⇒ q = 1 - p]
\(\Rightarrow q = 1 - \frac{1}{3}\)
\(\therefore q = \frac{2}{3}\)
From question,
\(\Rightarrow 1{ - ^n}{C_0}{\left( {\frac{1}{3}} \right)^0}{\left( {\frac{2}{3}} \right)^n} > \frac{5}{6}\)
\(\Rightarrow {\left( {\frac{2}{3}} \right)^n} < 1 - \frac{5}{6}\)
\(\Rightarrow {\left( {\frac{2}{3}} \right)^n} < \frac{1}{6}\)
Thus, the minimum value of n is 5.