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If \(\vec{p}\times\vec{q}\ =\ \vec{q}\times \vec{r}\) where p, q and r are coplanar vectors, then for some scalar k 
1. \(\vec{p}\ +\ \vec{r}\ =\ k\vec{q}\)
2. \(\vec{p}\ +\ \vec{q}\ =\ k\vec{r}\)
3. \(\vec{q}\ +\ \vec{r}\ =\ k\vec{p}\)
4. None of these

1 Answer

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Best answer
Correct Answer - Option 1 : \(\vec{p}\ +\ \vec{r}\ =\ k\vec{q}\)

Concept:

Let \(\rm\vec {a}\) and \(\rm \vec {b}\) be the two vectors,

The dot product of two vectors  is given by:  

\(\rm \vec{a}.\vec{b} = |\vec{a}|.|\vec{b}| cos θ\)

Cross product of two vectors  is given by:

 \(\rm \vec{a}× \vec{b} = |\vec{a}|.|\vec{b}| \sin θ\; ̂{n}\)

\(\rm \vec{a}× \vec{b} = -\ \vec{b}× \vec{a}\)

If \({\rm{\vec a\;and\;\vec b}}\) are two vectors parallel to each other then

 \({\rm\vec{a} = λ \vec{b}}\) or \(\rm \vec{a} × \vec{b} =0\)

Calculation:

Given that,

\(\vec{p}\times\vec{q}\ =\ \vec{q}\times \vec{r}\)

\(⇒\ \vec{p}\times\vec{q}\ -\ \vec{q}\times \vec{r}\ =\ 0\)

We know that,

\(\rm \vec{a}× \vec{b} = -\ \vec{b}× \vec{a}\)

\(⇒\ \vec{p}\times\vec{q}\ +\ \vec{r}\times \vec{q}\ =\ 0\)

\(⇒\ (\vec{p}\ \ +\ \vec{r})\times \vec{q}\ =\ 0\)

\(⇒\ (\vec{p}\ \ +\ \vec{r})\parallel \vec{q}\ \)

\(\Rightarrow \ \vec{p}\ +\ \vec{r}\ =\ k\vec{q}\)

Where k is any scaler.

Hence, option 1 is correct.

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