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∫e(sin)–1(x) ∙ e(tan)–1[√{1–(x)2}/x]dx for ∈ [0, π/2] is equal to ….. 

(a) (π/2)

(b) (π/2)e(π/2)

(c) (π/4)e(π/2) 

(d) e(π/2)

1 Answer

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Best answer

The correct option (b) (π/2)e(π/2)   

Explanation:

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