Correct option is : (4) 84%
\(\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{i}}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{m}(100)^{2}\)
\(\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{f}}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{m}(40)^{2}\)
\(\% \text { loss } =\frac{\left|\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{f}}-\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{i}}\right|}{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{i}}} \times 100\)
\(=\frac{\left|\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{m}(40)^{2}-\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{m}(100)^{2}\right|}{\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{m}(100)^{2}} \times 100\)
\(=\frac{|1600-100 \times 100|}{100}=84 \%\)