The magnetic moment vectors µs and µ, associated with the intrinsic spin angular momentum S and orbital angular momentum L, respectively, of an electron are predicted by quantum theory (and verified experimentally to a high accuracy) to be given by:
µs = -(e/m)S,
µ1 = -(e/2m)L,
Which of these relations is in accordance with the result expected classically? Outline the derivation of the classical result.