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in Binomial Theorem by (22.9k points)
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If rth and (r + 1)th terms in the expansion of (p + q)n are equal, then \(\frac{(n+1)q}{r(p+q)}\) is

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

(d) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

1 Answer

+1 vote
by (23.8k points)
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Best answer

Answer : (b) 1

Given, (p + q)n 

∴ General term = Tr + 1 = nCr pn – r qr 

∴  rth term = Tr = nCr–1 (p)n – (r – 1) qr – 1 

= nCr – 1 pn – r + 1 qr – 1 

(r + 1)th term = Tr+1 = nCr pn – r qr 

Given, Tr = Tr + 1 

nCr – 1 pn – r + 1 qr – 1 = nCr pn – r qr

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