Let us assume
I = \(\int\limits_{0}^{2\pi} \)log(sec x + tan x)dx.....equation 1
By property, we know that \(\int\limits_{a}^{b} \)f(x)dx = \(\int\limits_{a}^{b} \)(a + b - c) dx

We know that sec (2π – x) = sec (x)
tan(2π – x)=–tan (x)
thus I = \(\int\limits_{0}^{2\pi} \)log(sec(x) - tan(x))dx.....equation 2
Adding equations 1 and equation 2, we get,
2I = \(\int\limits_{0}^{2\pi} \)log(sec x + tan x)dx + \(\int\limits_{0}^{2\pi} \)log(sec(x) - tan(x))dx
We know log (a) + log (b) = log(ab)

We know Trigonometric identity sec2 x – tan2 x = 1

We know

where b is the upper limit and a is lower and f(x) is integral function
2I = \([0]_0^{2\pi}\)
Thus I = 0.