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in Derivatives by (47.4k points)
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If f(x) = 1 – x + x2 – x3 + ….. – x99 + x100, then f’(1) equals

A. 150

B. –50

C. –150

D. 50

1 Answer

+1 vote
by (45.0k points)
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Best answer

Correct answer is D.

Both terms have 50 terms

We know that sum of n terms of an A.P

Clearly above solution suggests that only 1 result is possible which is 50.

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