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Check whether f(z) = ex+iy is analytic or not.

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f(z) = ex+iy = ex.eiy

= ex(cos y + i sin y)     (∵ eiy =  cos y + i sin y)

= ex cos y + i ex sin y

By comparing with f(z) = u(x, y) + i v(x, y), we get

u(x, y) = ex cos y and

v(x, y) = ex sin y

\(\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}\) = ex cos y which is continuous on TR2

\(\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}\) = - ex sin y which is continuous on TR2

\(\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}\) = ex sin y which is continuous on TR2

\(\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}\) = ex cos y which is continuous on TR2

By observation, we obtain

\(\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}\) and \(\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}= -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}\)\(\)

Hence, function f satisfies the cauchy-riemann equations.

Since, \(\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}\),  \(\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}\)\(\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}\) and \(\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}\) are continuous on TR2 and satisfy the cauchy-riemann equations.

\(\therefore\) f(z) = ex+iy is an analytical function.

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